Let’s say the unanimous majority is correct that the (federal) US Congress must pass legislation to remove Trump’s assault on the U.S.A. Constitution through the election process. If that is the case, then how did the Robert’s Court assail “ The Voting Rights Act, federal legislation that protects the rights of every American? Answer me that.
The Robert’s court does as it pleases to satisfy their politics.
Stare decisis has no definition in the Robert’s court; ie: The Voting Rights Act and Roe v. Wade are only two instances where the conservative majority of that court stepped over the line! Politics is not supposed to exist in the decision making of the Supreme Court.
